"How can I know what I think until I read what I write?" – Henry James


There are a few lone voices willing to utter heresy. I am an avid follower of Ilusion Monetaria, a blog by ex-Bank of Spain economist (and monetarist) Miguel Navascues here.
Dr Navascues calls a spade a spade. He exhorts Spain to break free of EMU oppression immediately. (Ambrose Evans-Pritchard)

domingo, 9 de diciembre de 2012

Balassa -Samuelson. Evidencia

Aquí, en el FMI, los datos de inflación en los países desarrollados y emergentes, desde 1989. No veo que sea como el anonimo comentarista del post Balassa-Samuelson. La inflación de los emergentes es siempre muy superior a la de los avanzados. Sin embargo, el coste de la vida o nivel de precios es mucho las alto en los avanzados.
Un buen resumen del Modelo en Wikipedia, donde se confirma que el BSH es un modelo explicativo de las diferencias en el nivel de precios a través e las diferencias de productividad en trae los sectores exportadores y no exportadores.

Basic form of the effect

The simplest model which generates a Balassa–Samuelson effect has two countries, two goods (one tradable, and a country specific nontradable) and one factor of production, labor. For simplicity assume that productivity, as measured by marginal product of labor, in the nontradable sector is equal between countries and normalized to one.

MPL_{nt,1}=MPL_{nt,2}=1
where "nt" denotes the nontradable sector and 1 and 2 indexes the two countries.
In each country, under the assumption of competition in the labor market the wage ends up being equal to the value of the marginal product, or the sector's price times MPL (note that this is not necessary, just sufficient. What is needed is that wages are at least related to productivity.):

w_1=p_{nt,1}*MPL_{nt,1}=p_{nt,1}=p_{t}*MPL_{t,1}

w_2=p_{nt,2}*MPL_{nt,2}=p_{nt,2}=p_{t}*MPL_{t,2}
Where the subscript "t" denotes the tradables sector. Note that the lack of a country specific subscript on the price of tradables means that tradable goods prices are equalized between the two countries.
Suppose that country 2 is the more productive, and hence, the wealthier one. This means that

MPL_{t,1}<MPL_{t,2}
which implies that
p_{nt,1}<p_{nt,2}.
So with a same (world) price for tradable goods, the price of nontradable goods will be lower in the less productive country, resulting in an overall lower price level.

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